These are likely JAMB Physics questions and answers 2026 based on the official syllabus and past UTME trends.
The most likely JAMB Physics topics for 2026 are Motion and Mechanics, Waves, Light (Reflection & Refraction), Current Electricity, Electromagnetic Induction, and Radioactivity. These topics have appeared consistently in past JAMB papers and carry the highest number of questions.
Before you proceed, it is important to understand that these are not leaked questions. They are carefully compiled from:
The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) is the only body responsible for setting UTME questions, and no one has access to the exact exam questions before the exam. However, studying patterns and commonly tested areas gives you a strong advantage.
Many candidates search for “likely questions” because they want to focus on what truly matters, avoid wasting time on irrelevant topics, and improve their chances of scoring high. This guide is designed to help you do exactly that by exposing you to exam-standard questions, familiar patterns, and key concepts you are most likely to encounter.
If used properly, these questions will help you:
Practice every question carefully and treat it like a real exam.
ALSO READ: WAEC 2026 TIMETABLE
Follow these steps to get the best results from this practice material:
1. Which of the following is a fundamental (base) quantity?
A. Force
B. Velocity
C. Temperature
D. Pressure
Answer: C — Temperature
Explanation: The seven fundamental (base) SI quantities are length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminous intensity, and amount of substance. Force, velocity, and pressure are all derived quantities.
2. The unit of luminous intensity in the SI system is the
A. Lux
B. Candela
C. Lumen
D. Watt
Answer: B — Candela
Explanation: The candela (cd) is the SI base unit for luminous intensity. Lux (lx) is the unit of illuminance, and lumen (lm) is the unit of luminous flux.
3. A vector quantity is one that has
A. magnitude only
B. direction only
C. both magnitude and direction
D. neither magnitude nor direction
Answer: C — both magnitude and direction
Explanation: Vectors have both magnitude and direction (e.g., velocity, force, displacement). Scalars have magnitude only (e.g., speed, mass, temperature).
4. Two forces of 6 N and 8 N act perpendicularly on an object. The resultant force is
A. 14 N
B. 2 N
C. 10 N
D. 48 N
Answer: C — 10 N
Explanation: For two perpendicular forces, resultant R = √(6² + 8²) = √(36 + 64) = √100 = 10 N.
5. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to 20 m/s in 5 seconds. Its acceleration is
A. 25 m/s²
B. 100 m/s²
C. 4 m/s²
D. 0.25 m/s²
Answer: C — 4 m/s²
Explanation: a = (v – u)/t = (20 – 0)/5 = 4 m/s².
6. A body is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s², the maximum height reached is
A. 400 m
B. 80 m
C. 4 m
D. 160 m
Answer: B — 80 m
Explanation: At maximum height, v = 0. Using v² = u² – 2gh: 0 = 40² – 2(10)h → h = 1600/20 = 80 m.
7. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives
A. displacement
B. distance
C. acceleration
D. speed
Answer: C — acceleration
Explanation: The slope (gradient) of a velocity-time graph = change in velocity / change in time = acceleration. The area under a velocity-time graph gives displacement.
8. Newton’s first law of motion defines the concept of
A. momentum
B. inertia
C. weight
D. friction
Answer: B — inertia
Explanation: Newton’s first law states that a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. This tendency to resist change in motion is called inertia.
9. A 5 kg object moving at 4 m/s collides and sticks to a 3 kg stationary object. Their common velocity after collision is
A. 5 m/s
B. 3 m/s
C. 2.5 m/s
D. 1.5 m/s
Answer: C — 2.5 m/s
Explanation: By conservation of momentum: m₁u₁ = (m₁ + m₂)v → 5 × 4 = (5 + 3)v → 20 = 8v → v = 2.5 m/s.
10. The range of a projectile launched at an angle of 45° is maximum. If the initial speed is 20 m/s and g = 10 m/s², the maximum range is
A. 40 m
B. 20 m
C. 80 m
D. 10 m
Answer: A — 40 m
Explanation: Maximum range R = u²/g = (20)²/10 = 400/10 = 40 m (occurs at 45°).
11. An object moving in a circular path of radius 2 m at a speed of 4 m/s has a centripetal acceleration of
A. 8 m/s²
B. 16 m/s²
C. 2 m/s²
D. 4 m/s²
Answer: A — 8 m/s²
Explanation: Centripetal acceleration a = v²/r = (4)²/2 = 16/2 = 8 m/s².
12. The gravitational force between two masses is inversely proportional to
A. the product of their masses
B. the square of the distance between them
C. the sum of their masses
D. the distance between them
Answer: B — the square of the distance between them
Explanation: Newton’s law of universal gravitation: F = Gm₁m₂/r². Force is inversely proportional to r².
13. The escape velocity of a body from the Earth’s surface depends on
A. the mass of the body
B. the shape of the body
C. the mass and radius of the Earth
D. the speed of the body at launch
Answer: C — the mass and radius of the Earth
Explanation: Escape velocity v = √(2GM/R), where M is the mass of Earth and R is its radius. It is independent of the mass of the escaping body.
14. A body in simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) has maximum velocity at its
A. extreme position
B. equilibrium position
C. amplitude
D. turning point
Answer: B — equilibrium position
Explanation: In S.H.M., velocity is maximum at the equilibrium (centre) position where displacement is zero, and minimum (zero) at the extreme positions (amplitude).
15. Which of the following is the SI unit of impulse?
A. N/m
B. kg·m/s
C. N·m
D. kg·m/s²
Answer: B — kg·m/s
Explanation: Impulse = Force × time = N·s = kg·m/s². Since N = kg·m/s², impulse = kg·m/s, which is also the unit of momentum.
16. Which of the following best describes the motion of gas molecules at room temperature?
A. Oscillatory
B. Rotational
C. Translational and random
D. Circular
Answer: C — Translational and random
Explanation: According to kinetic theory, gas molecules undergo continuous, random, translational motion, colliding with each other and the walls of the container.
17. A dimension of [MLT⁻²] represents
A. energy
B. momentum
C. force
D. pressure
Answer: C — force
Explanation: Force = mass × acceleration = kg × m/s² = [M][L][T⁻²] = MLT⁻². Pressure is MLT⁻²/L² = ML⁻¹T⁻².
18. The period of a satellite orbiting close to the Earth’s surface is approximately
A. 24 hours
B. 90 minutes
C. 12 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer: B — 90 minutes
Explanation: A low Earth orbit (LEO) satellite orbiting close to Earth’s surface has an orbital period of approximately 90 minutes. A geostationary satellite orbits at 24 hours but is at a much higher altitude.
19. The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces is 0.5. If a block of mass 4 kg is placed on the surface, the minimum horizontal force needed to just move it is (g = 10 m/s²)
A. 8 N
B. 20 N
C. 40 N
D. 2 N
Answer: B — 20 N
Explanation: Maximum static friction F = μmg = 0.5 × 4 × 10 = 20 N. A force just greater than 20 N is needed to start the motion.
20. The angular velocity of a body rotating at 300 revolutions per minute (rpm) is
A. 5π rad/s
B. 10π rad/s
C. 300π rad/s
D. 150π rad/s
Answer: B — 10π rad/s
Explanation: ω = 2πN/60 = 2π × 300/60 = 2π × 5 = 10π rad/s.
21. A spring obeys Hooke’s law. If a force of 60 N extends it by 3 cm, the spring constant is
A. 180 N/m
B. 20 N/m
C. 2000 N/m
D. 0.05 N/m
Answer: C — 2000 N/m
Explanation: k = F/e = 60 N / 0.03 m = 2000 N/m.
22. Work is done on an object only when
A. a force is applied to it
B. the force causes displacement in the direction of the force
C. the object is in motion
D. the object has kinetic energy
Answer: B — the force causes displacement in the direction of the force
Explanation: Work = Force × displacement × cos θ. If θ = 90° (force perpendicular to motion), work done = 0. Displacement must have a component in the direction of the force.
23. A machine has a velocity ratio of 5 and an efficiency of 80%. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 4
B. 6.25
C. 1
D. 25
Answer: A — 4
Explanation: Efficiency = M.A / V.R × 100% → 80 = M.A/5 × 100 → M.A = (80 × 5)/100 = 4.
24. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg moving at 6 m/s is
A. 36 J
B. 72 J
C. 12 J
D. 6 J
Answer: A — 36 J
Explanation: KE = ½mv² = ½ × 2 × 6² = ½ × 2 × 36 = 36 J.
25. A pump of power 500 W lifts water through a vertical height of 10 m in 1 minute. The mass of water lifted is (g = 10 m/s²)
A. 300 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 30 kg
Answer: A — 300 kg
Explanation: Work done = Power × time = 500 × 60 = 30,000 J. Work done = mgh → 30,000 = m × 10 × 10 → m = 30,000/100 = 300 kg.
26. An object is in stable equilibrium if
A. its centre of gravity is high
B. its base area is small
C. a small displacement raises its centre of gravity
D. a small displacement lowers its centre of gravity
Answer: C — a small displacement raises its centre of gravity
Explanation: In stable equilibrium, any displacement raises the centre of gravity, and the object returns to its original position. In unstable equilibrium, displacement lowers the centre of gravity.
27. The upthrust on a body immersed in a fluid is equal to
A. the mass of the body
B. the weight of fluid displaced
C. the volume of the body
D. the density of the fluid
Answer: B — the weight of fluid displaced
Explanation: This is Archimedes’ principle: the upthrust (buoyant force) on a body fully or partially submerged in a fluid equals the weight of the fluid displaced.
28. Atmospheric pressure can support a column of mercury approximately
A. 10 cm
B. 76 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 760 cm
Answer: B — 76 cm
Explanation: Standard atmospheric pressure supports a mercury column of 76 cm (760 mm Hg = 1 atm = 101,325 Pa).
29. Viscosity of a liquid can be described as
A. the tendency of liquid molecules to attract each other across a surface
B. the internal resistance of a fluid to flow
C. the ability of a liquid to wet surfaces
D. the pressure a liquid exerts on its container
Answer: B — the internal resistance of a fluid to flow
Explanation: Viscosity is the measure of a fluid’s resistance to flow or deformation. High viscosity liquids (like honey) flow slowly; low viscosity liquids (like water) flow easily.
30. Which form of energy is stored in a stretched rubber band?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Thermal energy
C. Elastic potential energy
D. Chemical energy
Answer: C — Elastic potential energy
Explanation: A stretched or compressed elastic material (spring, rubber band) stores elastic potential energy. This energy is released when the material returns to its natural length.
31. Solar energy is an example of which type of energy source?
A. Non-renewable
B. Fossil fuel
C. Renewable
D. Nuclear
Answer: C — Renewable
Explanation: Solar energy is renewable because it comes from the sun, which provides a continuous and inexhaustible supply under human timescales, unlike fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas) which are non-renewable.
32. A body floats on water when
A. its weight equals the upthrust
B. its density is greater than water
C. its volume is less than water displaced
D. its mass is less than water
Answer: A — its weight equals the upthrust
Explanation: Law of floatation: a floating body displaces its own weight of the fluid. When upthrust equals the body’s weight, the net force is zero and the body floats.
33. The pressure at a depth h in a liquid of density ρ is given by
A. P = ρ/gh
B. P = ρgh
C. P = ρg/h
D. P = gh/ρ
Answer: B — P = ρgh
Explanation: Pressure in a liquid increases with depth: P = ρgh, where ρ is the liquid’s density, g is acceleration due to gravity, and h is the depth below the surface.
34. Which of the following is NOT a renewable energy source?
A. Wind energy
B. Hydroelectric power
C. Coal
D. Solar energy
Answer: C — Coal
Explanation: Coal is a fossil fuel formed over millions of years and is non-renewable. Wind, hydroelectric, and solar energy are all renewable because they are naturally replenished.
35. The Young’s modulus of a material is the ratio of
A. stress to strain
B. strain to stress
C. force to area
D. extension to original length
Answer: A — stress to strain
Explanation: Young’s Modulus E = Stress/Strain = (Force/Area) ÷ (Extension/Original Length). It measures the stiffness of a material within the elastic limit.
36. The specific heat capacity of a substance is the heat energy required to
A. melt 1 kg of the substance
B. raise the temperature of 1 kg by 1°C
C. convert 1 kg of liquid to vapour
D. raise the temperature of any mass by 1°C
Answer: B — raise the temperature of 1 kg by 1°C
Explanation: Specific heat capacity (c) = Q/(mΔT), where Q is heat absorbed, m is mass, and ΔT is temperature change. It represents the heat needed per kilogram per degree Celsius.
37. 0°C is equivalent to
A. 373 K
B. 273 K
C. 100 K
D. −273 K
Answer: B — 273 K
Explanation: The Kelvin and Celsius scales are related by T(K) = T(°C) + 273. Therefore, 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K.
38. Which gas law states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at constant volume?
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’s law
C. Pressure law (Gay-Lussac’s law)
D. Avogadro’s law
Answer: C — Pressure law (Gay-Lussac’s law)
Explanation: The Pressure Law (volumetric process): P/T = constant at constant volume. Charles’s law relates volume and temperature at constant pressure; Boyle’s law relates pressure and volume at constant temperature.
39. The transfer of heat energy through a vacuum is by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. absorption
Answer: C — radiation
Explanation: Radiation is the only mode of heat transfer that does not require a material medium. It travels through a vacuum as electromagnetic waves (infrared radiation), which is how the sun’s heat reaches Earth.
40. The anomalous expansion of water means that water
A. expands when heated above 100°C
B. reaches maximum density at 4°C
C. boils at 100°C
D. freezes at 0°C
Answer: B — reaches maximum density at 4°C
Explanation: Unlike most substances, water expands as it cools from 4°C to 0°C. It has its maximum density at 4°C. This anomalous expansion is important for aquatic life in cold climates.
41. Evaporation differs from boiling in that evaporation
A. occurs at the boiling point only
B. occurs at any temperature from the liquid’s surface
C. requires more latent heat
D. occurs throughout the liquid
Answer: B — occurs at any temperature from the liquid’s surface
Explanation: Evaporation is a surface phenomenon that occurs at all temperatures. Boiling occurs throughout the liquid and only at the boiling point (when vapour pressure equals atmospheric pressure).
42. The general gas equation is expressed as
A. PV = nRT
B. P/T = constant
C. PV/T = constant
D. V/T = constant
Answer: C — PV/T = constant
Explanation: The general gas equation combines all three gas laws: PV/T = constant (for a fixed mass of gas). The ideal gas equation is PV = nRT, where n is the number of moles and R is the universal gas constant.
43. A thermometric property is one that
A. measures heat energy
B. changes uniformly and measurably with temperature
C. remains constant with temperature
D. only works at high temperatures
Answer: B — changes uniformly and measurably with temperature
Explanation: A thermometric property is a physical property that varies linearly and measurably with temperature and can be used to calibrate a thermometer (e.g., length of mercury column, electrical resistance, volume of gas).
44. The latent heat of vaporization is greater than the latent heat of fusion for the same substance because
A. more heat is needed to freeze a liquid
B. more energy is needed to overcome molecular forces when converting liquid to gas
C. gases are lighter than liquids
D. fusion happens faster than vaporization
Answer: B — more energy is needed to overcome molecular forces when converting liquid to gas
Explanation: During vaporization, molecules must be completely separated from intermolecular forces, requiring far more energy than melting, where molecules only partially overcome these forces.
45. Land and sea breezes are caused by
A. radiation
B. conduction
C. convection
D. evaporation
Answer: C — convection
Explanation: Land heats up faster than sea during the day and cools faster at night, creating temperature differences that drive convection currents in the atmosphere — producing land and sea breezes.
46. Waves that do NOT require a material medium for propagation are called
A. mechanical waves
B. transverse waves
C. electromagnetic waves
D. longitudinal waves
Answer: C — electromagnetic waves
Explanation: Electromagnetic waves (light, radio waves, X-rays, etc.) can travel through a vacuum. Mechanical waves (sound, water waves) require a material medium for propagation.
47. The frequency of a wave is 500 Hz and its wavelength is 0.4 m. The speed of the wave is
A. 1250 m/s
B. 200 m/s
C. 125 m/s
D. 0.0008 m/s
Answer: B — 200 m/s
Explanation: v = fλ = 500 × 0.4 = 200 m/s.
48. In a stationary (standing) wave, the points of zero displacement are called
A. antinodes
B. nodes
C. crests
D. troughs
Answer: B — nodes
Explanation: In a stationary wave, nodes are points of zero displacement (minimum amplitude), while antinodes are points of maximum displacement. Nodes occur at fixed intervals of half a wavelength.
49. The Doppler effect describes the change in
A. speed of a wave when the source moves
B. amplitude of a wave due to motion
C. observed frequency of a wave due to relative motion between source and observer
D. wavelength of a wave in different media
Answer: C — observed frequency of a wave due to relative motion between source and observer
Explanation: The Doppler effect: when a source moves towards an observer, the observed frequency increases (pitch rises); when moving away, frequency decreases. It applies to both sound and light.
50. An echo is heard 0.6 seconds after a sound is produced. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the distance of the reflecting surface is
A. 204 m
B. 102 m
C. 408 m
D. 56.7 m
Answer: B — 102 m
Explanation: Distance = (speed × time)/2 = (340 × 0.6)/2 = 204/2 = 102 m. The factor of 2 accounts for the sound travelling to the wall and back.
51. Resonance occurs when
A. a body vibrates at its natural frequency due to an external periodic force
B. two waves cancel each other out
C. a wave is reflected from a surface
D. sound travels through a vacuum
Answer: A — a body vibrates at its natural frequency due to an external periodic force
Explanation: Resonance occurs when the driving frequency of an external force matches the natural frequency of a vibrating body, causing large-amplitude oscillations.
52. Which of the following correctly describes a longitudinal wave?
A. Vibrations are perpendicular to the direction of propagation
B. Vibrations are parallel to the direction of propagation
C. The wave travels in a vacuum only
D. The wave produces compressions only
Answer: B — Vibrations are parallel to the direction of propagation
Explanation: In longitudinal waves (e.g., sound), particle vibration is parallel to wave propagation. Compressions and rarefactions are formed. In transverse waves (e.g., light), vibrations are perpendicular to propagation.
53. The quality (timbre) of a musical note depends on
A. its frequency
B. its amplitude
C. the number and intensity of overtones present
D. the medium of propagation
Answer: C — the number and intensity of overtones present
Explanation: Quality (timbre) distinguishes two notes of the same pitch and loudness from different instruments. It depends on the harmonics (overtones) present and their relative intensities.
54. Plane polarization of light proves that light is
A. a longitudinal wave
B. a transverse wave
C. a sound wave
D. a mechanical wave
Answer: B — a transverse wave
Explanation: Only transverse waves can be polarized. Plane polarization of light (restricting vibrations to one plane) confirms that light is a transverse wave. Longitudinal waves (like sound) cannot be polarized.
55. When two waves of slightly different frequencies superpose, the phenomenon observed is called
A. resonance
B. diffraction
C. beats
D. interference
Answer: C — beats
Explanation: When two sound waves of slightly different frequencies combine, the resulting sound alternates between loud and soft at a frequency equal to the difference between the two original frequencies. This is called beat frequency.
56. An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image distance is
A. 60 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 20 cm
Answer: A — 60 cm
Explanation: Using mirror formula: 1/f = 1/u + 1/v → 1/20 = 1/30 + 1/v → 1/v = 1/20 − 1/30 = 3/60 − 2/60 = 1/60 → v = 60 cm.
57. Total internal reflection occurs when
A. light travels from a less dense to a more dense medium
B. the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle
C. light travels from a denser to a less dense medium at an angle greater than the critical angle
D. light hits a mirror at 90°
Answer: C — light travels from a denser to a less dense medium at an angle greater than the critical angle
Explanation: Total internal reflection requires two conditions: (1) light must travel from a denser to a less dense medium, and (2) the angle of incidence must exceed the critical angle.
58. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm produces a real image at 40 cm from the lens. The object distance is
A. 30 cm
B. 40/3 cm
C. 13.3 cm
D. 50 cm
Answer: C — 13.3 cm
Explanation: 1/f = 1/u + 1/v → 1/10 = 1/u + 1/40 → 1/u = 1/10 − 1/40 = 4/40 − 1/40 = 3/40 → u = 40/3 ≈ 13.3 cm.
59. The critical angle of glass-air interface is 42°. The refractive index of glass is approximately
A. sin 42°
B. 1/sin 42°
C. cos 42°
D. tan 42°
Answer: B — 1/sin 42°
Explanation: At the critical angle C, the refracted ray travels at 90°. Using Snell’s law: n = 1/sin C = 1/sin 42° ≈ 1/0.669 ≈ 1.49.
60. Which optical instrument uses two convex lenses — an objective and an eyepiece — to view small nearby objects?
A. Telescope
B. Periscope
C. Compound microscope
D. Camera
Answer: C — Compound microscope
Explanation: A compound microscope uses a short focal length objective lens to produce a magnified real image, and an eyepiece lens to further magnify this image. It is used for viewing very small nearby objects.
61. Dispersion of white light by a glass prism occurs because
A. different colours travel at the same speed in glass
B. white light contains different frequencies that travel at different speeds in glass
C. the prism absorbs some colours
D. different colours undergo total internal reflection
Answer: B — white light contains different frequencies that travel at different speeds in glass
Explanation: In glass, different colours (frequencies) of light have slightly different refractive indices and travel at different speeds, causing them to refract by different amounts and separate — producing a spectrum.
62. A short-sighted (myopic) person has a defect because
A. the eyeball is too short
B. images of distant objects form in front of the retina
C. the eye lens cannot thicken
D. images form behind the retina
Answer: B — images of distant objects form in front of the retina
Explanation: In myopia (short-sightedness), the eyeball is too long or the eye lens too curved, causing parallel rays from distant objects to converge in front of the retina. It is corrected using a diverging (concave) lens.
63. Optical fibres work on the principle of
A. diffraction of light
B. refraction of light
C. total internal reflection
D. polarization of light
Answer: C — total internal reflection
Explanation: Optical fibres transmit light along their length by total internal reflection at the glass–cladding interface. Light entering at one end undergoes repeated total internal reflections and exits at the other end.
64. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is CORRECT?
A. They require a medium for propagation
B. They all travel at 3 × 10⁸ m/s in vacuum
C. Gamma rays have the longest wavelength
D. Radio waves have the highest frequency
Answer: B — They all travel at 3 × 10⁸ m/s in vacuum
Explanation: All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in vacuum — the speed of light, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength and highest frequency.
65. In the electromagnetic spectrum, which radiation has wavelength between ultraviolet and infrared?
A. X-rays
B. Microwaves
C. Visible light
D. Radio waves
Answer: C — Visible light
Explanation: The electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing wavelength: gamma rays → X-rays → ultraviolet → visible light → infrared → microwaves → radio waves. Visible light lies between UV and infrared.
66. Coulomb’s law states that the force between two point charges is
A. inversely proportional to the product of the charges
B. directly proportional to the square of the distance
C. directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
D. independent of the medium between the charges
Answer: C — directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
Explanation: Coulomb’s law: F = kq₁q₂/r², where k is Coulomb’s constant, q₁ and q₂ are charges, and r is the distance between them.
67. Three resistors of 3 Ω, 6 Ω, and 9 Ω are connected in parallel. Their combined resistance is
A. 18 Ω
B. 1.64 Ω
C. 6 Ω
D. 3 Ω
Answer: B — 1.64 Ω
Explanation: 1/R = 1/3 + 1/6 + 1/9 = 6/18 + 3/18 + 2/18 = 11/18 → R = 18/11 ≈ 1.64 Ω.
68. A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 Ω drives a current through an external resistor of 4 Ω. The terminal voltage is
A. 12 V
B. 8 V
C. 4 V
D. 6 V
Answer: B — 8 V
Explanation: Current I = emf/(R + r) = 12/(4 + 2) = 2 A. Terminal voltage = emf − Ir = 12 − (2 × 2) = 12 − 4 = 8 V.
69. An electric heater rated 1000 W is used for 2 hours. The energy consumed in kilowatt-hours is
A. 2 kWh
B. 500 kWh
C. 2000 kWh
D. 0.5 kWh
Answer: A — 2 kWh
Explanation: Energy = Power × time = 1 kW × 2 h = 2 kWh. This is also the commercial unit used by electricity distribution companies for billing.
70. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis states that the mass of a substance deposited is
A. inversely proportional to the current
B. directly proportional to the quantity of charge passed
C. independent of the current
D. proportional to the atomic mass only
Answer: B — directly proportional to the quantity of charge passed
Explanation: Faraday’s first law: m = ZQ = ZIt, where Z is the electrochemical equivalent, I is current, and t is time. More charge → more mass deposited.
71. The direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by
A. Fleming’s right-hand rule
B. Lenz’s law
C. Fleming’s left-hand rule
D. Faraday’s law
Answer: C — Fleming’s left-hand rule
Explanation: Fleming’s left-hand rule (motor rule): hold the thumb, index finger, and middle finger perpendicular to each other — index = field direction, middle = current direction, thumb = direction of force/motion.
72. Lenz’s law is a consequence of
A. Ohm’s law
B. conservation of charge
C. conservation of energy
D. Newton’s second law
Answer: C — conservation of energy
Explanation: Lenz’s law states that the induced EMF always opposes the change causing it. This opposition requires work to be done against it, illustrating conservation of energy — electrical energy comes from the work done against the opposing force.
73. A transformer has 500 turns in the primary coil and 100 turns in the secondary. If the primary voltage is 250 V, the secondary voltage is
A. 50 V
B. 1250 V
C. 500 V
D. 25 V
Answer: A — 50 V
Explanation: Vs/Vp = Ns/Np → Vs = Vp × (Ns/Np) = 250 × (100/500) = 250 × 0.2 = 50 V. This is a step-down transformer.
74. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor INCREASES when
A. the distance between the plates increases
B. the area of the plates decreases
C. a dielectric material is inserted between the plates
D. the charge on the plates is reduced
Answer: C — a dielectric material is inserted between the plates
Explanation: C = εA/d. Capacitance increases with larger plate area (A), smaller separation (d), and higher permittivity (ε) — inserting a dielectric increases ε, thus increasing capacitance.
75. The r.m.s value of an alternating current is
A. equal to the peak value
B. the value of d.c. that produces the same heating effect
C. always greater than the peak value
D. half the peak value
Answer: B — the value of d.c. that produces the same heating effect
Explanation: The root mean square (r.m.s.) value of an a.c. is equivalent to the d.c. that would produce the same power dissipation in a resistor. I_rms = I_peak/√2 ≈ 0.707 × I_peak.
76. In an R-L-C series circuit at resonance
A. inductive reactance equals resistance
B. capacitive reactance is zero
C. inductive reactance equals capacitive reactance
D. impedance is maximum
Answer: C — inductive reactance equals capacitive reactance
Explanation: At resonance, XL = XC, so they cancel. The impedance Z = R (minimum), and current is at its maximum. The resonant frequency is f₀ = 1/(2π√LC).
77. A galvanometer is converted to a voltmeter by
A. connecting a high resistance in series
B. connecting a low resistance in parallel
C. connecting a high resistance in parallel
D. connecting a low resistance in series
Answer: A — connecting a high resistance in series
Explanation: A voltmeter needs high resistance to measure voltage without drawing significant current. A high multiplier resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer. An ammeter is made by connecting a low shunt resistance in parallel.
78. The solenoid produces a magnetic field similar to that of a
A. straight wire
B. bar magnet
C. horseshoe magnet
D. circular loop
Answer: B — bar magnet
Explanation: A current-carrying solenoid (coil of wire) produces a uniform magnetic field inside and a field pattern outside that closely resembles that of a bar magnet, with distinct north and south poles.
79. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C charged to a voltage V is
A. CV
B. ½CV
C. ½CV²
D. CV²
Answer: C — ½CV²
Explanation: Energy stored in a capacitor: E = ½CV² = ½QV = Q²/2C, where Q is the charge, C is capacitance, and V is voltage.
80. Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by
A. using thicker iron cores
B. laminating the iron core
C. using iron with high resistance
D. removing the iron core
Answer: B — laminating the iron core
Explanation: Eddy current losses are reduced by making the transformer core from thin insulated layers (laminations). This increases resistance to eddy current flow, reducing power losses as heat.
81. The photoelectric effect shows that light behaves as
A. a wave
B. a particle (photon)
C. a magnetic field
D. a longitudinal wave
Answer: B — a particle (photon)
Explanation: The photoelectric effect — where light ejects electrons from a metal surface — cannot be explained by wave theory. Einstein explained it by treating light as photons (particles). This demonstrates wave-particle duality.
82. The half-life of a radioactive element is 10 years. After 30 years, the fraction of the original sample remaining is
A. 1/4
B. 1/6
C. 1/8
D. 1/3
Answer: C — 1/8
Explanation: Number of half-lives = 30/10 = 3. Fraction remaining = (1/2)³ = 1/8. After each half-life, the amount halves: 1 → 1/2 → 1/4 → 1/8.
83. Alpha particles are
A. fast-moving electrons
B. high-energy photons
C. helium nuclei (2 protons + 2 neutrons)
D. protons only
Answer: C — helium nuclei (2 protons + 2 neutrons)
Explanation: Alpha (α) particles consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons — identical to a helium-4 nucleus. They have low penetrating power but high ionizing ability.
84. In a nuclear fission reaction
A. a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei, releasing energy
B. two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus
C. an atom loses electrons
D. gamma rays are absorbed
Answer: A — a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei, releasing energy
Explanation: Nuclear fission involves the splitting of a heavy nucleus (e.g., uranium-235) into two lighter nuclei, releasing a large amount of energy and additional neutrons that can trigger a chain reaction.
85. The mass defect in a nucleus is converted to energy according to
A. E = mc
B. E = mc²
C. E = m/c²
D. E = ½mc²
Answer: B — E = mc²
Explanation: Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence: E = Δmc², where Δm is the mass defect (difference between mass of separate nucleons and the actual nuclear mass), and c is the speed of light. This binding energy holds the nucleus together.
86. In a p-n junction diode, forward bias means
A. the positive terminal is connected to the n-type semiconductor
B. the positive terminal is connected to the p-type semiconductor
C. no voltage is applied
D. both p and n regions are negative
Answer: B — the positive terminal is connected to the p-type semiconductor
Explanation: In forward bias, the positive terminal of the battery is connected to the p-type (anode) and negative to n-type (cathode). This reduces the depletion layer and allows current to flow through the diode.
87. The Bohr model of the atom states that electrons
A. move randomly in the nucleus
B. orbit the nucleus in fixed energy levels without radiating energy
C. are stationary within atoms
D. can exist anywhere around the nucleus
Answer: B — orbit the nucleus in fixed energy levels without radiating energy
Explanation: Bohr’s model: electrons move in specific orbits (shells) around the nucleus without losing energy. Energy is emitted or absorbed only when an electron transitions between energy levels.
88. X-rays are produced when
A. electrons are emitted from a heated filament
B. high-speed electrons strike a metal target
C. gamma rays interact with matter
D. protons are accelerated
Answer: B — high-speed electrons strike a metal target
Explanation: In an X-ray tube, electrons are accelerated from a cathode to a heavy metal anode (target). When they suddenly decelerate on impact, X-rays are produced (Bremsstrahlung radiation).
89. An intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero temperature behaves like
A. a metal conductor
B. a superconductor
C. an insulator
D. a p-type semiconductor
Answer: C — an insulator
Explanation: At absolute zero (0 K), all electrons in an intrinsic (pure) semiconductor are in the valence band with no thermal energy to jump to the conduction band. There are no free charge carriers, so it behaves like an insulator.
90. Gamma (γ) rays are
A. fast electrons from the nucleus
B. helium nuclei
C. high-energy electromagnetic radiation from the nucleus
D. visible light of very high intensity
Answer: C — high-energy electromagnetic radiation from the nucleus
Explanation: Gamma rays are high-energy, short-wavelength electromagnetic radiation emitted from the nucleus during radioactive decay. They have the highest penetrating power among the three types of nuclear radiation (α, β, γ).
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